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Posted by Robert Erik on November 30, 2004 at 11:32:59:
Texas - I had signed on a house for my ex-wife during our divorce (for her and baby). She subsequently remarried (I had a clause in the divorce decree that after remarrying she'd have 90 days to get the property in her name.) A few months after her marriage she stopped making the house payments and foreclosure began.
There was a second lien holder (to avoid paying PMI insurance). Is the primary lien holder required to pay the secondary lien holder after the property is sold?
The junior lien holder has givin the account to a collections agency whose been bugging me and I'm wondering what my rights may be.
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