foreclosure title

Posted by Michele on October 29, 2002 at 18:52:33:

My mother had to foreclose on a mortgage she held after 18 months of non-payment. The sale is scheduled, but she now has a buyer. Her lawyer said the "owner" of the property had to agree to let the sale go through. I do not understand this at all. Shouldn't the property have been titled into her name at the time the judge signed the order? Any help I can get would be appreciated.

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• Re: premature evictulation - njdave 21:25:18 10/30/02 (0)

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: My mother had to foreclose on a mortgage she held after 18 months of non-payment.  The sale is scheduled, but she now has a buyer.  Her lawyer said the "owner" of the property had to agree to let the sale go through.  I do not understand this at all.  Shouldn't the property have been titled into her name at the time the judge signed the order?   Any help I can get would be appreciated.


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